Homosexuality in the bible

J ([email protected])
Sat, 4 Jul 1998 01:59:11 -0700 (PDT)

I forgot the details and the passages but I'm pretty sure of this story:

The Bible supposedly condems homosexuality in the story about Sodom.
If you notice, this is where the term "sodomize" comes from. However,
the term and the story have been found to be erroneous. The story of
Sodom had something to do about male visitors who were then allegedly
"anal sexed" by the men. So the Bible said that there it is a grave
sin whuich was denounced. However, there were references in the New
Testament to the story of Sodom and the sin Jesus denounced was that
of inhospitability.

There were three different hebrew words were used to connote sex in
the Old Testament. Two of those were frequently used while the third
one was seldom used and in 90% of the time it was used, it did not
refer to sex. This "third" word was the one used in the story of
Sodom so the sin denounced could either be inhospitability or
homosexuality. But when the New Testament alluded to Sodom by talking
about the sin of inhospitabilty, it was obvious that the word used in
the original Hebrew text in the story of Sodom did not pertain to anal
sex at all. (The Old Testament was written originally In hebrew,
among other languages, so the best way to get the meaning is by
looking at the original texts and not the translations.)

I currently not able to get the exact Bible passages as of yet but I
will try to find out soon. I hope most of you get what I'm trying to
say. Christians beleive in the Bible. The conflict among Christians
arise when some sects take the Bible to literally while others take it
too liberally. Cathlics base their teaching on three things: Church
teaching, tradition and the Bible. Other Christian sects who have
departed from the Catholic teaching have done so because they may have
had found some error or inconsistency with the Church teaching and the
Bible. Some other Chirstains base everything in the Bible.
Regardless of what kind of Chirstian one is, all would agree that the
best way to interpret the Bible is the see the words in the context
used and also the original language. For example, if you make a
German Bible, you translate it from the original Hebrew and not from
the English translation so that there would be consistency in language.

I hope this doens't turn into a Wire discussion on religion. However,
my point is basically to clear up the misconception that teh Bible
denounces homosexuality. IT DOES NOT. And you can ask any priest



PS: I have never been reading the flame wars about homosexuality so I
don't have a clue about whats going on. I just worte this because I
saw one post saying the Bible denounces homosexuality

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